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Significant parts of a local county park are actually owned by the adjacent cemetery, and a few smaller pieces are privately owned. Apart from a recently-sprouted "for sale" sign, there's no obvious indication that it isn't all county parkland, though there are some subtle ones (eg. trails in the cemetery-owned part are maintained wide enough to drive on, where park-owned trails are only footpath-wide).

Should I map the de-facto boundaries, or the de-jure boundaries?

asked 07 May '16, 05:33

Carnildo's gravatar image

Carnildo
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I always try to mark the boundaries of individually owned or operated parts if info available. The park is likely to have boundary=protected area or leisure=park or other as appropriate. On the cemetery land and private land you can add land cover tags to the parts that are similar to the county park.

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answered 07 May '16, 14:03

nevw's gravatar image

nevw
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accept rate: 9%

I would add both, and tag a de-jure polygon as access=permissive.

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answered 09 May '16, 13:50

fooquency's gravatar image

fooquency
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question asked: 07 May '16, 05:33

question was seen: 2,179 times

last updated: 09 May '16, 13:50

NOTICE: help.openstreetmap.org is no longer in use from 1st March 2024. Please use the OpenStreetMap Community Forum