I have gone through the definitions of derived and collective data but if anybody could explain me in detail with examples then i could get the difference better. Thanking in advance. asked 16 Jan '14, 10:42 ispl aseerel4c26 ♦ |
Broadly speaking the difference is as stated in OSM's Legal FAQ:
There is no hard and fast rule: copyright law rarely works in black and white. However, if you have specific usage queries, then do post them here and people can suggest what would apply. (Note that no-one here is able to give formal legal advice or speak officially for the OSM Foundation.) answered 16 Jan '14, 10:59 Richard ♦ |
The most important thing to remember is that you cannot get legal advice from the OpenStreetMap community, so no matter what answers you get here (including this one), if you need to be sure you should employ a lawyer to look at your precise circumstances. A slight variation that seems insignificant to you could alter the legal position of your use. However, the general rule is that if you can superimpose a separate dataset over OpenStreetMap data (often by compositing after rendering), and you do not change the OpenStreetMap data in any way, that is usually considered a produced work. If, however, your use of the data requires you to combine OpenStreetMap data with another source (e.g. a set of geodata containing streets that aren't in OSM) then that is a derived work. In either case you still need to credit OpenStreetMap as the source of your data. Remember: this is not legal advice. answered 16 Jan '14, 11:20 Jonathan Ben... |